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So, when the author of Matthew, by his own admission facing an apologetics problem in transmitting the empty tomb story, adds the Roman guard and the post-resurrection appearances clearing up the unreliability of the witnesses and the ambiguity of the ending of Mark, how is it valid to retroject his "embarrassment" onto the author of Mark?
Chávez himself has been at the forefront of an effort to equate Israel with Hitler, and then to retroject Jewish conspiracy onto the Venezuelan opposition.
That might be the case, but it may also be a reflection of the fact that Jesus actually said little or nothing about his death, didn't interpret it, and it was hard to retroject an explanation of his death into the pre-crucifixion story.