from Wiktionary, Creative Commons Attribution/Share-Alike License
- v. Simple past tense and past participle of palatalize.
from the GNU version of the Collaborative International Dictionary of English
- adj. Produced with the front of the tongue near or touching the hard palate as "y"; or with the blade of the tongue near the hard palate as "ch" in "chin" or "j" in "gin".
from WordNet 3.0 Copyright 2006 by Princeton University. All rights reserved.
- adj. produced with the front of the tongue near or touching the hard palate (as `y') or with the blade of the tongue near the hard palate (as `ch' in `chin' or `j' in `gin')
Sorry, no etymologies found.
We know that pronouns and numerals contain the so-called palatalized stops exclusively and yet this is completely counter to the principle of phonological markedness.
As if this isn't enough, even though his revisal of the phonology is fundamentally flawed with the basic data available to us, he goes on to add that chi is not a palatalized velar as his proposed pattern would suggest, but a velar fricative /x/.
However, labialized stops, palatalized stops and now ejectives seem to me to be purely imaginative overkill, based on nothing concrete.
This then seems like a more natural solution overall than the traditional account which would have us believe in palatalized velars which extend far into pre-IE despite being unstable and despite lacking any indication of a recent source of their supposed palatalization.
Nostraticists, working with the flawed palatalized model of yore, were in effect sent down a wild goose chase for a very long time.
The origin of the Indo-European uvular stop traditionally the "plain, non-palatalized stop"
Paleoglot: The origin of the Indo-European uvular stop traditionally the "plain, non-palatalized stop"
After becoming *-is, the ending would have rhotacized in Pre-Altaic to *-ir before being palatalized to *-ir₂.
Since I've already theorized that uvulars were only allophones of their velar counterparts at this stage, I've apparently treed myself into a logical pickle and I can't quite account for the source for the added uvularization i.e. the velar stop is "non-palatalized" according to traditional PIE notation, thus according to the reinterpretation of the sound system I stand by, the *-g- in *mesg- would appear to be a uvular creaky-voiced stop.
I find palatalized uvulars which occur in some of the weirder North Caucasian languages hard to articulate, but not a simple [ks] or for that matter [kt] with "dental" [t].